Philippians 2:7 and Kenosis Theory. First realize that no recognized teacher in the first 1,800 years of church history, including those who were native speakers of Greek, thought that “emptied himself ” in Philippians 2:7 meant that the Son of God gave up some of his divine

"all things were created through him and for him (God the Son)." Col. 1:16 "For it was fitting that he (God the Father), for whom and by whom all things exist..." He. 2:10.

Having fish 🐟 for dinner tonight like a good Catholic... except I'm Protestant.

youtu.be/yzqTFNfeDnE?si…

"Let the redeemed of the LORD say so." Ps. 107:2a - that's all. Good morning, afternoon, evening.

Micah 7:18-19 Who is a God like you, pardoning iniquity and passing over transgression for the remnant of his inheritance? He does not retain his anger forever, because he delights in steadfast love. He will again have compassion on us; he will tread our iniquities underfoot.

facebook.com/share/p/1ZPaWE…

The textual proof of the designation θεός as applied to Jesus in the NT merely confirms what other grounds have already established. In fact, the title θεός only makes explicit what is implied by other Christological titles, such as κύριος and υἱὸς θεοῦ. Harris adds, Even

...when did this boldness to call Jesus θεός begin? It began in the first century. It was not a creation of Constantine in the fourth century. It was not a doctrinal innovation to combat Arianism in the third century. Nor was it a subapostolic distortion of the apostolic kerygma

The inference of Jesus' comment in Mark 10:18 "No one is good except God alone" and the observation of the scribes in 2:7 "Who can forgive sins but God alone?" and Jesus' comment in v.10 "that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins” appears to be

Looking forward to starting this new arrival.

Romans 10:9-13 The Lord of verse 9 (“Jesus is Lord”) is the “him” of verse 11 (“Everyone who believes in him”), who is also the “Lord” of verse 12 (“the same Lord is Lord of all”). Finally, Paul wraps up his argument by quoting from Joel 2:32: “Everyone who calls on the name of

If Jesus is a creation of God the Father, who then created everything else, this would indicate that Jesus exists contingently - meaning that it's possible for Him not to exist at all. But this is a logical contradiction because as a contingent being, Jesus, cannot create another

Today's reading is brought to you by...

New arrival. Thanks for the suggestion an anvil of Yahweh

Since Germans had for centuries celebrated Christmas and Easter, Hitler had to reinterpret their meaning. Christmas was turned into a totally pagan festival; in fact, for the SS troops its date was changed to December 21st, the date of the winter solstice. School prayers were

ἦν is a verb. It is an Imperfect Indicative Active 3rd person singular from the root ἐιμί. It is showing continuous existence in past time. So at the first or at whatever beginning we are speaking about Jesus was eternally existing as the Word Gary Staats, Christological Greek

There are no intervals in the sphere of existence "before the ages," nor are there any differences of being... The generation of the Son is not within time, any more than the creation was before time. It is utterly wrong to introduce division into an order of existence that emits

Human thought cannot apprehend how the unbegotten God becomes the Father of the only-begotten Son. For it is an eternal and ceaseless generation, as radiance is generated from light. For he does not become the Son externally, by the adoption of the Spirit, but he is by nature the

It is most absurd to affirm that the Father ever existed without the Son, for that this could never be the case has been testified by the Son, who said, "I am in the Father and the Father is in me," and, "I and the Father are one." We cannot deny that he was begotten, but we say